[May-2022]SC-400 VCE Dumps Free Download in Braindump2go[Q134-Q139]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go SC-400 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new SC-400 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 134
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains the policies shown in the following table.

A file named File1 has all the policies applied.
How long will File1 be retained?

A. File1 will be deleted automatically after seven years.
B. File1 will be deleted automatically after five years.
C. File1 will be retained until the file is deleted manually.
D. File1 will be deleted automatically after 10 years.

Answer: D

Read more

[May-2022]Braindump2go MS-600 Dumps(PDF and VCE) MS-600 191Q Free Offer[Q177-Q184]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go MS-600 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new MS-600 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 177
You need to build a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part that will display the contents of a user’s Microsoft Exchange Online inbox. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which object should you include in the solution?

A. SPHttpClient
B. the JavaScript API for Exchange Web Services (EWS)
C. MSGraphClient
D. AadHttpClient

Answer: C
Explanation:
MSGraphClient is a new HTTP client introduced in SharePoint Framework v1.6.0 that simplifies connecting to the Microsoft Graph inside SharePoint Framework solutions. With MS Graph we use MSGraphClient to get information about the current user; this.context.msGraphClientFactory
.getClient()
.then((client: MSGraphClient): void => {
// get information about the current user from the Microsoft Graph client
.api(‘/me’)
.get((error, response: any, rawResponse?: any) => { // handle the response
});
});
Reference:
https://www.c-sharpcorner.com/article/show-outlook-messages-from-microsoft-graph-in-spfx-client-side-web-part/

Read more

[May-2022]Real MS-500 Dumps MS-500 292Q-Braindump2go[Q265-Q282]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go MS-500 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new MS-500 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 265
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains two users named User1 and User2.
On January 1, you create the sensitivity label shown in the following table.

On January 2, you publish label to User1.
On January 3, User1 creates a Microsoft Word document named Doc1 and applies Label to the document.
On January 4, User2 edits Doc1.
On January 15, you increase the content expiry period for Label to 28 days.
When will access to Doc1 expire for User2?

A. January 23
B. January 24
C. January 25
D. January 31

Answer: C

Read more

[May-2022]100% Valid DP-900 PDF and VCE DP-900 187Q Provided by Braindump2go[Q162-Q179]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go DP-900 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new DP-900 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 162
Which statement is an example of Data Manipulation Language (DML)?

A. REVOKE
B. DISABLE
C. CREATE
D. UPDATE

Answer: D
Explanation:
Data Manipulation Language (DML) affect the information stored in the database. Use these statements to insert, update, and change the rows in the database.
BULK INSERT
DELETE
INSERT
SELECT
UPDATE
MERGE
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/statements

Read more

[May-2022]Free PCNSA 273Q PCNSA Dumps VCE and PDF Braindump2go Offer[Q254-Q266]

May/2022 Latest PCNSA Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new PCNSA Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 254
Which DNS Query action is recommended for traffic that is allowed by Security policy and matches Palo Alto Networks Content DNS Signatures?

A. block
B. sinkhole
C. alert
D. allow

Answer: B
Explanation:
To enable DNS sinkholing for domain queries using DNS security, you must activate your DNS Security subscription, create (or modify) an Anti-Spyware policy to reference the DNS Security service, configure the log severity and policy settings for each DNS signature category, and then attach the profile to a security policy rule.
https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/10-1/pan-os-admin/threat-prevention/dns-security/enable-dns-security

Read more

[May-2022]High Quality Braindump2go 350-501 Exam Dumps PDF and VCE 350-501 301Q Free Share[Q300-Q318]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go 350-501 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 350-501 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 300
Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet access provider is configuring routers PE-1 and PE-2 to provide E-Access EVPL service between UNI and ENNI. ENNI service multiplexing is based on 802.1ad tag 150, and service-multiplexed UNI is based on 802.1q tag 10. Which EFP configurations must the provider implement on PE-1 and PE-2 to establish end-to-end connectivity between CE-1 and CE-2?

A. On PE-1:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 100 ethernet
encapsulation dot1ad 150
rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric
On PE-2:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 2 ethernet
encapsulation dot1q 10
B. On PE-1:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 100 ethernet
encapsulation dot1q 150
rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric
On PE-2:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 2 ethernet
encapsulation dot1q 10
C. On PE-1:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 100 ethernet
encapsulation dot1ad 150 dot1q 10
rewrite ingress tag pop 2 symmetric
On PE-2:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 2 ethernet
encapsulation dot1q 10
D. On PE-1:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 100 ethernet
encapsulation dot1ad 150
rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric
On PE-2:
interface GigabitEthernet2
service instance 2 ethernet
encapsulation dot1q 10
rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric

Answer: C

Read more

[May-2022]High Quality Braindump2go PCNSA PDF PCNSA 273Q Free Share[Q254-Q266]

May/2022 Latest PCNSA Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new PCNSA Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 254
Which DNS Query action is recommended for traffic that is allowed by Security policy and matches Palo Alto Networks Content DNS Signatures?

A. block
B. sinkhole
C. alert
D. allow

Answer: B
Explanation:
To enable DNS sinkholing for domain queries using DNS security, you must activate your DNS Security subscription, create (or modify) an Anti-Spyware policy to reference the DNS Security service, configure the log severity and policy settings for each DNS signature category, and then attach the profile to a security policy rule.
https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/10-1/pan-os-admin/threat-prevention/dns-security/enable-dns-security

Read more

[May-2022]Valid Braindump2go CISM PDF and VCE Dumps CISM 1959Q Offer[Q1890-Q1928]

May/2022 Latest Braindump2go CISM Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new CISM Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1890
The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

A. increase the security of related applications.
B. support multiple authentication mechanisms.
C. increase efficiency of access management.
D. strengthen user passwords.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1891
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when prioritizing controls to be added to a system?

A. Baseline to industry standards
B. The risk register
C. Balanced scorecard
D. Compliance requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 1892
An organization has recently acquired a smaller company located in a different geographic region.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for addressing conflicts between the parent organization’s security standards and local regulations affecting the acquired company?

A. Adopt the standards of the newly acquired company.
B. Give precedence to the parent organization’s standards.
C. Create a global version of the local regulations,
D. Create a local version of the parent organization’s standards.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1893
An organization has decided to outsource its disaster recovery function. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when drafting the service level agreement (SLA)?

A. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
B. Testing requirements
C. Recovery point objectives (RPOs)
D. Authorization chain

Answer: B

QUESTION 1894
Which of the following MOST effectively allows for disaster recovery testing without interrupting business operations?

A. Full interruption testing
B. Simulation testing
C. Parallel testing
D. Structured walk-through

Answer: A

QUESTION 1895
When defining and communicating roles and responsibilities between an organization and cloud service provider, which of the following situations would present the GREATEST risk to the organization’s ability to ensure information risk is managed appropriately?

A. The Service agreement results in unnecessary duplication of effort because shared responsibilities have not been clearly defined.
B. The organization and provider identified multiple information security responsibilities that neither party was planning to provide.
C. The service agreement uses a custom-developed RACI instead of an industry standard RACI to document responsibilities.
D. The organization believes the provider accepted responsibility for issues affecting security that the provider did not accept.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1896
An organization has implemented a new security control in response to a recently discovered vulnerability. Several employees have voiced concerns that the control disrupts their ability to work. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?

A. Educate users about the vulnerability.
B. Report the control risk to senior management.
C. Accept the vulnerability.
D. Evaluate compensating control options.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1897
An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resalve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify, What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

A. Implement a SIEM solution.
B. Perform a post-incident review.
C. Perform a threat analysis.
D. Establish performance metrics for the team.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1898
An organization’s ClO has tasked the information security manager with drafting the charter for an information security steering committee. The committee will be comprised of the C/O, the IT shared services manager, the vice president of marketing, and the information security manager. Which of the following is the MOST significant issue with the development of this committee?

A. The CIO is not taking charge of the committee.
B. There is a conflict of interest between the business and IT.
C. The committee lacks sufficient business representation.
D. The committee consists of too many senior executives.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1899
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when considering exceptions to an information security policy?

A. Exceptions are based on data classification.
B. Exceptions undergo regular review.
C. Exceptions reflect the organizational risk appetite.
D. Exceptions are approved by executive management.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1900
Which of the following would be MOST useful in determining how an organization will be affected by a new regulatory requirement for cloud services?

A. Risk assessment
B. Data classification policy
C. Information asset inventory
D. Data loss protection plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 1901
Which of the following is an information security manager’s BEST course of action upon discovering an organization with budget constraints lacks several important security capabilities?

A. Suggest the deployment of open-source security tools to mitigate identified risks.
B. Recommend that the organization avoid the most severe risks.
C. Establish a business case to demonstrate return on investment (ROI) of a security tool.
D. Review the most recent audit report and request funding to address the most serious finding.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1902
Which of the following is the BEST way to strengthen the alignment of an information security program with business strategy?

A. Providing organizational training on information security policies
B. Increasing budget for risk assessments
C. Increasing the frequency of control assessments
D. Establishing an information security steering committee

Answer: D

QUESTION 1903
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?

A. Approving changes to the information security strategy
B. Discussing upcoming information security projects
C. Reviewing monthly information security metrics
D. Reviewing the information security risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 1904
An organization has established a bring your own device (BYOD) program. Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when allowing employees to use personal devices for corporate applications remotely?

A. Security awareness training
B. Secure application development
C. Mobile operating systems support
D. Mandatory controls for maintaining security policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 1905
An organization is developing a disaster recovery strategy and needs to identify each application’s criticality so that the recovery sequence can be established. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A. Document the data flow and review the dependencies.
B. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) on each application.
C. Restore the applications with the shortest recovery times first.
D. Identify which applications contribute the most cash flow.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1906
an information security manager has identified a major security event with potential noncompliance implications. Who should be notified FIRST?

A. Internal audit
B. Senior management
C. Public relations team
D. Regulatory authorities

Answer: B

QUESTION 1907
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

A. Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level
B. Confirming the organization complies with security policies
C. Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected
D. Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

Answer: A

QUESTION 1908
To address the issue that performance pressures on IT may conflict with information security controls, itis MOST important that:

A. the Steering committee provides guidance and dispute resolution.
B. noncompliance issues are reported to senior management.
C. IT policies and procedures are better aligned to security policies.
D. the security policy is changed to accommodate IT performance pressure.

Answer: A

QUESTION 1909
Which of the following would BEST help an organization’s ability to manage advanced persistent threats (APT)?

A. Using multiple security vendors
B. Having a skilled information security team
C. Having network detection tools in place
D. Increasing the information security budget

Answer: C

QUESTION 1910
Priore implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

A. select mobile device management (MDM) software.
B. survey employees for requested applications.
C. review currently utilized applications.
D. develop an acceptable use policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1911
In an organization that has several independent security tools including intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and firewalls, which of the following is the BEST way to ensure timely detection of incidents?

A. Ensure staff are cross trained to manage all security tools.
B. Ensure that the incident response plan is endorsed by senior management.
C. Outsource the management of security tools to a service provider.
D. Implement a log aggregation and correlation solution.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1912
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security steering committee?

A. Revigwing firewall rules
B. Setting up password expiration procedures
C. Prioritizing security initiatives
D. Drafting security policies

Answer: C

QUESTION 1913
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when determining appropriate access controls for an application?

A. End-user input
B. Industry best practices
C. Data criticality
D. Gap analysis results

Answer: C

QUESTION 1914
Which of the following provides the MOST relevant information to determine the overall effectiveness of an information security program and underlying business processes?

A. SWOT analysis
B. Balanced scorecard
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Industry benchmarks

Answer: B

QUESTION 1915
What should be an information security manager’s MOST important consideration when reviewing a proposed upgrade to a business unit’s production database?

A. Ensuring residual risk is within apbetite
B. Ensuring the application inventory is updated
C. Ensuring a cost-benefit analysis is completed
D. Ensuring senior management is aware of associated risk

Answer: A

QUESTION 1916
Which of the following metrics provides the BEST measurement of the effectiveness of a security awareness program?

A. Mean time between incident detection and remediation
B. Variance of program cost to allocated budget
C. The number of reported security incidents
D. The number of security breaches

Answer: A

QUESTION 1917
Which of the following is an information security manager’s FIRST priority after a high-profile system has been compromised?

A. Implement improvements to prevent recurrence.
B. Identify the malware that compromised the system.
C. Preserve incident-related data.
D. Restore the compromised system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1918
Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address complaints that a newly implemented security control has slowed business operations?

A. Discuss the issue with senior management for direction.
B. Validate whether the control is operating as intended.
C. Remove the control and identify alternatives.
D. Conduct user awareness training.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1919
An information security manager was informed that a planned penetration test could potentially disrupt some services.
Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?

A. Ensure the service owner is available during the penetration test.
B. Accept the risk and document it in the risk register.
C. Estimate the impact and inform the business owner.
D. Reschedule the activity during an approved maintenance window.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1920
What is the PRIMARY objective of implementing standard security configurations?

A. Maintain a flexible approach to mitigate potential risk to unsupported systems.
B. Compare configurations between supported and unsupported systems.
C. Minimize the operational burden of managing and monitoring unsupported systems.
D. Control vulnerabilities and reduce threats from changed configurations.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1921
In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?

A. Allocation of training resources
B. Compliance with policies
C. Auditability of systems
D. Ownership of security

Answer: D

QUESTION 1922
When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:

A. estimated time to recover.
B. information assets affected.
C. their root causes.
D. recovery point objectives (RPOs).

Answer: D

QUESTION 1923
An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack. Which of the following should be the information security manager’s FIRST step?

A. Wipe the affected system.
B. lsolate the impacted endpoints.
C. Notify senior management
D. Notify internal legal counsel.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1924
The PRIMARY purpose for defining key risk indicators (KRIs) for a security program is to:

A. ensure mitigating controls meet specifications.
B. provide information needed to take action.
C. support investments in the security program.
D. compare security program effectiveness to benchmarks.

Answer: A

QUESTION 1925
An information security manager is preparing incident response plans for an organization that processes personal and financial information. Which of the Following is the MOST important consideration?

A. Identifying regulatory requirements
B. Determining budgetary constraints.
C. Aligning with enterprise architecture (EA)
D. Aligning with an established industry framework

Answer: A

QUESTION 1926
To implement effective continuous monitoring of IT controls, an information security manager needs to FIRST ensure:

A. security alerts are centralized.
B. periodic scanning of IT systems is in place.
C. metrics are communicated to senior management.
D. information assets have been classified.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1927
Which of the following is MOST likely to be included in an enterprise security policy?

A. Retention schedules
B. Organizational risk
C. System access specifications
D. Definitions of responsibilities

Answer: D

QUESTION 1928
Which of the following is the BEST way to build a risk-aware culture?

A. Periodically test compliance with security controls and post results.
B. Periodically change risk awareness messages.
C. Ensure that threats are communicated organization-wide in a timely manner.
D. Establish incentives and a channel for staff to report risks.

Answer: A


Resources From:

1.2022 Latest Braindump2go CISM Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) Free Share:
https://www.braindump2go.com/cism.html

2.2022 Latest Braindump2go CISM PDF and CISM VCE Dumps Free Share:
https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1GQzdCXx8t3NzUvXsN8V7eoR3FXqRs-t6?usp=sharing

3.2021 Free Braindump2go CISM Exam Questions Download:
https://www.braindump2go.com/free-online-pdf/CISM-PDF(1704-1805).pdf
https://www.braindump2go.com/free-online-pdf/CISM-PDF-Dumps(1603-1703).pdf
https://www.braindump2go.com/free-online-pdf/CISM-VCE-Dumps(1806-1928).pdf

Free Resources from Braindump2go,We Devoted to Helping You 100% Pass All Exams!

[April-2022]100% Success-Braindump2go AZ-120 PDF Dumps AZ-120 119Q Instant Download[Q150-Q170]

April/2022 Latest Braindump2go AZ-120 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new AZ-120 Real Ezxam Questions!

QUESTION 150
Hotspot Question
You have an on-premises SAP landscape and an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNET1. VNET1 has the following settings.

You plan to migrate the landscape to Azure.
You need to configure VNET1 to support the SAP landscape.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the settings.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: add a virtual network gateway
Box 2: use remote gateways
Each virtual network, regardless of whether peered with another virtual network, can still have its own gateway to connect to an on-premises network. When you peer virtual networks, you can also configure the gateway in the peered virtual network as a transit point to an on-premises network. In this case, the virtual network that uses a remote gateway cannot have its own gateway. A virtual network can have only one gateway that can be either a local or remote gateway (in the peered virtual network).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview

Read more

[March-2022]Exam Pass 100%!Braindump2go 300-715 Dumps 300-715 200Q Instant Download[Q177-Q198]

March/2022 Latest Braindump2go 300-715 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 300-715 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 177
An administrator is configuring a new profiling policy within Cisco ISE. The organization has several endpoints that are the same device type and all have the same Block ID in their MAC address. The profiler does not currently have a profiling policy created to categorize these endpoints, therefore a custom profiling policy must be created.
Which condition must the administrator use in order to properly profile an ACME Al Connector endpoint for network access with MAC address <MAC ADDRESS>?

A.    MAC_OUI_STARTSWITH_<MACADDRESS>
B.    CDP_cdpCacheDevicelD_CONTAINS_<MACADDRESS>
C.    MAC_MACAddress_CONTAINS_<MACADDRESS>
D.    Radius Called Station-ID STARTSWITH <MACADDRESS>

Answer: D

Read more

Pages: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 ... 460 461
1 2 3 4 5 461